Paul's Hellenistic Jewish Weltanschauung & Rabbis?



GAL 3:19-20

~*~

Inhibition
of conditioned
reflex?!

~*~


WHY
then the law?
Why the THE
LAW?

IT
was added
because of transgression,
until the seed should come
to whom the promise
has been made;
and it was ordained by angels
through an intermediary.
Now an intermediary
is from MORE than one,
but "G*D"
is ONE ...

-

Proper
clarification
of this
and the following passage
is crucial
to any
construal
of Paul's theology
of Judaism.

There seems to me
to be not the slightest reason
in this text
to understand the word 'because'
as telic,
namely that Paul wishes to say
that the Law was given
in order to produce
transgression.

The SIMPLEST
explanation of the verse is
that the Law was given
as a TEMPORARY
& SECONDARY measure,
because of the existence of sin
in the present age,
in order to restrain people from transgressing
UNTIL the coming of Yehoshua
who IS THE
seed.

-gemeen-

ANOTHER
interpretation
that could be proposed
and seems to me also to be
a distinct possibility,
can be read as,
"added because of transgression,"
as having causal force,
NOT in the sense
of PREVENTING transgression
but in the sense of
PROVIDING
an ANSWER to
transgression,
namely,
PUNISHMENT?

-knipoog-

THIS
also helps
make good sense
of the,
"Scripture consigned
or confined
under
sin,"
of verse 22
below.

-cool!-

AFTER
hundreds of years
& hundreds of interpretations,
I believe that finally the problem
of these verses has been
solved?

-nahnah-

The
"seed"
to whom the promise was made
is
the NEW ONE HUMAN FAMILY
of Christ,
and IT
was ordained
by 'angels'
through an intermediary,
MOSHE.

-verliefd-

This
reading decisively clarifies
the next
verse.

-liefdesverdriet-

The translation
given above
follows standard interpretations,
NONE of them
successful,
which in one way or another
find here a logical argument
that the Law
MUST have been given
by 'angels'
and not by
"G*D".

-verliefd-

NTW
translates
rather,
"Now he [the mediator]
is not a mediator of one,
but "G*D" is
one."

-

Having
established above
that "one" here means the
NEW UNIFIED SINGLE FAMILY OF HUMANITY
in Christ,
we understand
the verse to mean
that MOSHE was the mediator
NOT for his ONE family of humanity
BUT ONLY a part of IT,
for a difference
within the sameness,
so this
cannot be
the FULFILLMENT that "G*D"
looks for,
BECAUSE 'G*D'
IS
ONE.

-

The verse becomes
on THIS reading an exact parallel to Paul's argument in ROM 3:20:
"IS 'g*d' the 'g*d' of the JEWS ONLY?
Is he not of gentiles ALSO?
YES, of gentiles
ALSO!"

-

To sum up
this interpretation:

'The problem of v. 20b
can be solved quite easily once 20a is read in THIS way.
MOSHE is NOT the mediator of the "ONE FAMILY," but 'g*d' is one,
 and therefor desires ONE FAMILY,
as he promised to Avraham.
The presupposition of Paul's argument is that, if there IS one 'g*d' -
the foundation of all Jewish belief -
there must be one people of 'g*d'.
Were there to be two or more "peoples,"
the whole theological scheme would lapse back
into some sort of paganism,
with each tribe or race
possessing its own
national
deities."

~verliefd~
engel
01 jul 2005 - bewerkt op 06 mrt 2008 - meld ongepast verhaal
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