true circumcision defines the true jew


~*~

'the true
circumcision defines the true
jew'
THIS distinction
is the clue
to understanding
the key verse
GAL 3:10
where
according to my interpretation
paul argues
that those who 'do' the law are not
'fulfilling' the law

I assume that
the 'upholding' of the deuteronomy quotation
is semantically [or perhaps theologically]
roughly equivalent to 'fulfilled'
in GAL 5:14

the hebrew 'mekajam' of the verse
certainly means 'to fulfill the requirement of'
as well as 'to preserve'

men of works of the law
those who hold that works justify and practice accordingly
are accursed by the law itself
because of their misunderstanding of the true import
of the law

it is these
to whom paul will later refer in ROM as
'you who have the written code & circumcision
but break the law'

THIS interpretation
is supported as well by paul's own usage in other places
for instance ROM 3:27
where he explicitly contrasts 'doing'
which equals 'the law of works'
with 'the law of faith'

~*~

THE NEXT VERSE
is also quite simply understood as a midrashic argument
although from the rabbinic point of view surely
a 'midrash of lies'

paul wishes to prove
that 'nobody is justified before "G*D"
by law'

he first cites
the verse of chavakuk
which reads that the 'righteous live
by faith'

it follows from this
that those who live by faith are the righteous
i.e. the justified!

he then argues
that those who live by the law
do NOT live by faith
since the verse in LEV explicitly reads
'he who does them lives by them'
i.e. one who does the commandments lives by them and
NOT by faith

SINCE
then
we know from chavakuk
that the righteous live by faith
he who lives by them and NOT by faith
[and thereby does NOT fulfill the law]
is NOT righteous - is NOT
justified

paul has then
a perfect proof that 'nobody is justified before "G*D"
by law'

THIS interpretation
obviates S.'s claim that paul is here denying the truth of a verse
of the torah

paul is using methods of interpretation
that would not surpise any rabbi or pharisee [I suspect]
although the results he arrives at would
of course
SHOCK them to their depths
]
the phrase 'does them' in the LEV verse
is precisely the same as 'to do them' in the verse of DEUT
so this argument is a direct sequel
to the previous one

FINALLY
it IS highly significant
that in the LEV context
the law which one does is specifically marked as that
which marks jews off from gentiles:

"YOU
shall not act
according to the way of life of egypt in which you lived!
and you shall not act according to the way of life of cana'an
into which I will cause you to go
and you shall NOT live by
their laws
*
YOU
shall do my statutes [mishpatim]
and keep MY laws and LIVE by them:
I AM the LORD your "G*D"
and you shall keep ALL my laws
and all my statutes
and DO THEM
which if a man DOES
WILL LIVE
by them"

~verliefd~
engel
25 jun 2005 - bewerkt op 05 mrt 2008 - meld ongepast verhaal
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