midrash


~*~The Meaning Of Justification~*~

THE TERM
justification ITSELF
must be explicated?!
-
I have suggested
that PAUL shares this terminology
and even the specific term justification by faith with his Jewish-Christian opponents,
here & now personified
by PETE.
-
IT IS IMPORTANT
TO REALIZE, MOREOVER, THAT THE TERM
justification ITSELF is not a novum
of Christianity
but simply a basic
Jewish notion.
-
IT REFERS
to the situation of the believer
at her last judgment
{whether eschatological or merely after death is irrelevant here},
when the question is:
WILL I BE acquitted by the divine court?
Justification
means acquittal!
-
The Greek
is a calque (loan translation)
on the Hebrew "YTSDK",
which means both to be just or righteous
and to be declared or recognized
as just or
righteous.
-
In addition,
there is already biblical speculation
on HOW one becomes justified,
whether through "G*d's" justice
or through his
mercy.
-
THE NOVELTY
of Christianity is
that faith in Mashiach is
what counts
{either alone or in combination with works}
at the divine Assizes:
PAUL's thought
is therefore primarily soteriological,
and his determination is
THAT ALL SHALL BE SAVED
BY THE SAME MEANS.
-
Such ethnic practices
as circumcision and refraining from eating shrimp
could not possibly be the mechanism by which Scythians & Celts
(in Galatia) would be acquitted at the Last Judgment,
because these practices are specifically Jewish,
whereas, as EPS precisely formulates it,
"Mashiach/Christ is the END of the Law,
so that there might be righteousness
for ALL
who have faith."
-
AND therefore,
according to Paul:
"G*d's righteousness" is,
through Mashiach/Christ, available on the basis of faith
TO ALL on equal footing.
IF G*d's riGhteousness
is the righteousness which is by faith in Yeshua
and which is available to gentile as well as Jew,
then the Jewish righteousness which was zealously sought
is the righteousness available to the Jew alone
on the basis of observing the law.
"THEIR OWN RIGHTEOUSNESS,"
in other words, means
"THAT RIGHTEOUSNESS WHICH THE JEWS ALONE ARE PRIVILIGED TO OBTAIN" rather than
"SELF-RIGHTEOUSNESS WHICH CONSISTS
IN INDIVIDUALS PRESENTING THEIR MERITS AS A CLAIM ON
'g*d'."
-
IT IS
because it is "G*d's" righteousness
that it could both possibly be for Jews alone,
as Paul explicitly says in ROM(ans) 3:29:
"Is "G*D" the 'g*d' of the Jews alone?"
To support this construction of the theology,
detailed exegesis of Paul's hermeneutic
is necessary?
verliefdliefdesverdrietverliefd
gemeengaap!nahnahcool!
erg vrolijkknipoogvrolijk
~verliefd~
engel

13 jun 2005 - bewerkt op 03 mrt 2008 - meld ongepast verhaal
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